- 1. In anesthesia machine check list all true EXCEPT:
- 2. Which color is the mostly affect pulse oxymeter?
- 3. FEV (forced expiratory volume ) {of the forced vital capacity } is equal to :
- 4. Patent flushed dyspnic hypotensive after given one unit of RBCs what you will give him
- 5. Ketamine hallucination is counter by giving :
- 6. Suxamethonium phase II:
- 7. In M R which is less histamine release:
- 8. Triggering factors of malignant hyperthermia include the following EXCEPT:
- 9. which of the following can cause vagal stimulation and bradycardia:
- 10.The best IV induction agent for patient with cardiovascular disease is:
- 11. Which of the following rotometer flow indicator is read in the middle
- 12. All of the following predict difficult intubation in pregnant women EXCEPT:
- 13. Hypokalemia my cause all of the following EXCEPT :
- 14. Which of the following intravenous anesthetic agent is associated with high incidence of nausea and vomiting?
- 15.Isoflurane which is false?
- 16. Atropine
- 17. Many of clotting factors are produced in:
- 18. Which of the following benziylisoquinolinium none depolarizing neuromuscular drugs this class of drugs in that it does not cause release of histamine?
- 19. All of the following laryngoscopes are straight EXCEPT:
- 20. Which of the following materials will not ignite during laser surgery?
- 21.Increase vagal tone causes :
- 22. The late complications following partial thyroidectomy include :
- 23. Cigarette smoking is associated with:
- 24.For safe storage of the compressed –gas cylinders:
- 25.One of the following drugs relax pregnant uterus:
- 26.Phenytoin:
- 27.Etomidate:
- 28.Which is following intravenous drugs can produce analgesia with small doses:
- 29.Which of the following alarm would sound if anesthesia breathing circuit becomes disconnected from the patient' endotracheal tube:
- 30.The laryngeal mask airway LMA can use for all uses EXCEPT:
- 31.Hypothermia occurring during anesthesia and surgery is associated with all the following effect EXCEPT:
- 32.Which is the most rare blood group:
- 33.In Capnography the CO2 tension can measured using:
- 34.Airway resistance:
- 35.Which of the following muscle relaxants causes histamine release?
- 36.In CPR all of the following are used except:
- 37.Postoperative delayed recovery 45 min following induction of anesthesia with Suxamethonium is due to:
- 38.Concerning Esmolol, ONE is TRUE:
- 39.Perfalgan:
- 40.Propofol is administrated for sedation:
- 41.The least reliable site for central temperature monitoring is the:
- 42.One of the following drugs least likely to cross placenta:
- 43.Ketamine:
- 44.SA node is the pacemaker of the heart because of:
- 45.The number of oxygen molecules carried by one hemoglobin molecule:
- 46.A size E compressed cylinder completely filled with N2O contains liters:
- 47.The predominate component of Baralime granules is:
- 48.Succinylcholine is contraindicated in routine tracheal intubation in children because of an increased incidence of which of the following side effects:
- 49.Which of the following muscle relaxants the most suitable for rabid intubation in whom Succinylcholine is contraindicated
- 50.The LEAST likely complication of laparoscopy includes:
- 51.All of the following factors stimulate release of catecholamine EXCEPT:
- 52.Metoclopramide:
- 53.The following are powerful paramagnetic gases
- 54.Humidity can be measured by all EXEPT:
- 55.A patient with FBS concentration of 100 ml/dl undergoing operation lasting for 4hrs udder general anesthesia without intraoperative administration of glucose on emergence the most likely finding will be:
- 56.Suxamethonium is contraindicated in:
- 57.All of the following are safe to use in patient with malignant hyperthermia EXCEPT:
- 58.Naloxone:
- 59.In the recovery respiratory rate measurement are done routinely every:
- 60. Witch one of the following regarding spinal anesthesia is true:
- 61. High concentration of O2 must be avoided in:
- 62.All of the following can be used to reduce the possibility of aspiration EXCEPT:
- 63. The proper position for caesarean section is:
- 64. In caesarean section narcotic must be given :
- 65. One of the following is done during failed intubation:
- 66. Post-anesthetic arrhythmias can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:
- 67. Double lumen tube is used in:
- 68. The MOST common cause of damage to the eye during anesthesia is :
- 69. Patient should be discharged from the recovery room when the total post-anesthetic score is:
- 70. The nasogastric tube in laparoscopic cholecystectomy is used to :
- 71. At what level should the blood sugar of diabetic patient be maintained?
- 72. The best IV induction agent for patient with cardiovascular disease is
- 73. How long elective surgery should be postponed after myocardial infarction?
- 74. All of the following can be used for the treatment of local anesthesia toxicity:
- 75. Choose the correct statement about general anesthesia for caesarean section:
- 76. Shock syndrome is characterized by:
- 77. The internal diameter of an endotracheal tube for an 8 years old child is:
- 78. Which of the following is NOT a known adverse effect of thiopentone?
- 79. One of the following can cause bronchospasm:
- 80. The dose of local anesthetic agent used for Bier s block:
- 81.Blood transfusion is indicated in young adult males if blood loss is:
- 82. The normal urine output is:
- 83. In cases of severe bleeding the MOST suitable intravenous fluid is:
- 84.Choose the correct statement about induction of anesthesia:
- 85. The IV induction agent of choice in hypotensive patient during emergency surgery is:
- 86. The fluid requirement for the maintenance in the 1st 10 kg of child weight is
- 87. Which one of the following is the MOST useful monitor in detecting correct placement of an endotracheal tube?
- 88. The induction for spontaneous breathing in anesthesia practice:
- 89. Family history in preoperative is mandatory to detect:
- 90. The MOST serious anesthetic complication in the late pregnancy is:
- 91. Which one of the following is true regarding a patient with ASA II :
- 92.The preoperative chest X-ray must be done for:
- 93. The earliest manifestation of Endobronchial intubation is:
- 94.The best method of detecting esophageal intubation:
- 95. Treatment of laryngeal spasm includes:
- 96. The following are anatomical signs of difficult intubation EXCEPT:
- 97.Which statement about induction of anesthesia is true?
- 98. Inhalation induction is contraindicated in:
- 99. The short duration of action of Thiopentone is related to:
- 100. In case of regurgitation the patient should be placed immediately in:
Each question below contains suggested responses. Read the question stem carefully and select the ONE BEST response to each question
1. In anesthesia machine check list all true EXCEPT:
A. Check O2
supply and reserve cylinders
B. Check
electricity supply to the machine and monitoring equipments
C. Check machine
before any anesthesia before each anesthetic administered
D. Check each
flow meter through its whole ranges
2. Which color is the mostly affect pulse oxymeter?
A. White
B. Yellow
C. Blue
D. Red
3. FEV (forced expiratory volume ) {of the forced vital capacity } is equal to :
A. 95%
B. 80%
C. 15%
D. 50%
4. Patent flushed dyspnic hypotensive after given one unit of RBCs what you will give him
A. Adrenaline
B. Antiemetic
C. Antihistamine
D. Aminophylline
5. Ketamine hallucination is counter by giving :
A. Esmolol
B. Midazolam
C. Ketamine
D. Thiopentone
6. Suxamethonium phase II:
A. Can be
reversed with neostigmine
B. Due to small
dose
C. Caused by
Rocuronium infusion
D. Due to
cholinesterase abnormality
7. In M R which is less histamine release:
A. Suxamethonium
B. Pancuronium
C. Vecuronium
D. Atracurium
8. Triggering factors of malignant hyperthermia include the following EXCEPT:
A. Desflurane
B. enflurane
C. halothane
D. thiopentone
9. which of the following can cause vagal stimulation and bradycardia:
A. anal surgery
B. peritoneal
surgery
C. carotid
manipulation
D. all of the above
10.The best IV induction agent for patient with cardiovascular disease is:
A. Etomidate
B. Thiopentone
C. Ketalar
D. Pethidine
11. Which of the following rotometer flow indicator is read in the middle
A. Bobbin
B. H float
C. Ball float
D. Skirfart float
12. All of the following predict difficult intubation in pregnant women EXCEPT:
A. Airway edema
B. Large breasts
C. Preeclampsia
D. Mallampati 3
13. Hypokalemia my cause all of the following EXCEPT :
A. Weakness
B. Muscle pain
C. Peaked T wave
in ECG
D. Constipation
14. Which of the following intravenous anesthetic agent is associated with high incidence of nausea and vomiting?
A. Thiopental
B. Etomidate
C. Ketamine
D. Propofol
15.Isoflurane which is false?
A. Is respiratory
depressant
B. Cause
tachycardia
C. Is associated
with the development of convulsion
D. Cause of dose
related depression in systemic vascular resistance
16. Atropine
A. Blocks the
muscarinic effects of acetylcholine
B. Does not cross
Blood Brain Barrier
C. Inhibits
acetylcholine release
D. Cannot cause
pyrexia
17. Many of clotting factors are produced in:
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Heart
D. Brain
18. Which of the following benziylisoquinolinium none depolarizing neuromuscular drugs this class of drugs in that it does not cause release of histamine?
A. D-tubocurarine
B. Cisatracurium
C. Rocuronium
D. Atracurium
19. All of the following laryngoscopes are straight EXCEPT:
A. Magill
B. Millar
C. Wisconsin
D. Bowen- Jackson
20. Which of the following materials will not ignite during laser surgery?
A. Rubber
B. silicone
C. Polyvinyl
D. Metal
21.Increase vagal tone causes :
A. Hypertension
B. Tachycardia
C. Bradycardia
D. Increase
cardiac out put
22. The late complications following partial thyroidectomy include :
A. Strider
B. Thyroid crisis
C. Hypocalcaemia
D. Respiratory
obstruction
23. Cigarette smoking is associated with:
A. Thyroid cancer
B. Bronchial
cancer
C. Cervical
cancer
D. bladder cancer
24.For safe storage of the compressed –gas cylinders:
A. cylinder can
be handled with oily hands
B. cylinder can
be stored near flammable material
C. cylinder can
be stored in extreme heat or cold
D. paper or
plastic covers should be removed from the cylinder
25.One of the following drugs relax pregnant uterus:
A. Adrenaline
B. Dopamine
C. Acetylcholine
D. Salbutamol
26.Phenytoin:
A. is a treatment
of choice in status epileptics
B. loading dose
is 7mg/kg iv
C. can be given
via peripheral line
D. dose can be
increased beyond the therapeutic level to achieve desirable response
27.Etomidate:
A. is useful in
patient with limited cardiovascular reverse
B. it produces no
pain on injection
C. it is not
water soluble
D. it associated
with allergic reaction
28.Which is following intravenous drugs can produce analgesia with small doses:
A. Midazolam
B. Etomidate
C. thiopental
D. Ketamine
29.Which of the following alarm would sound if anesthesia breathing circuit becomes disconnected from the patient' endotracheal tube:
A. high pressure
alarm
B. continuing
pressure alarm
C. Subatmosphiric
alarm
D. Minimum
ventilation pressure alarm
30.The laryngeal mask airway LMA can use for all uses EXCEPT:
A. controlled
ventilation is possible with it provided the inflation pressure does not
exceed 35 cm H2O
B. Size 1 is used
for neonates <5kg
C. used in
emergency management of failed intubation
D. Used during
CPR
31.Hypothermia occurring during anesthesia and surgery is associated with all the following effect EXCEPT:
A. Decreased
blood loss
B. Decreased drug
metabolism and clearance
C. Wound
infection
D. Postoperative
myocardial ischemia
32.Which is the most rare blood group:
A. A Rh+
B. AB Rh+
C. AB Rh[1]D. B Rh-
33.In Capnography the CO2 tension can measured using:
A. Mass
spectrometer
B. gas
chromatography
C. Photoacoustic
spectrometer
D. Raman
scattering
34.Airway resistance:
A. Increases in
asthma
B. Decreases in
emphysema
C. Increases in
paraplegic patient
D. Does not
affect work of breathing
35.Which of the following muscle relaxants causes histamine release?
A. Rocuronium C.
Atracurium
B. Pancuronium D.
Cisatracurium
36.In CPR all of the following are used except:
A. Peripheral
vein should be flushed by 20 ml of saline after each drug
B. Tracheal
administration of lignocaine is possible
C. Central veins
is reoffered for administration of drugs
D. When using
adrenaline through tracheal tube the dose should be of the same dose of
the intravenous
dose
37.Postoperative delayed recovery 45 min following induction of anesthesia with Suxamethonium is due to:
A. Phase II
desensitization
B. Acetylcholine
block
C. Concurrent
administration of opioids
D. Subclinical renal impairment
38.Concerning Esmolol, ONE is TRUE:
A. Is a beta
adrenergic agonist
B. Is
contraindicated in patient with AV- heart block
C. Has a
half-life of 4 hours
D. Is more likely
than propranolol to cause bronchospasm
39.Perfalgan:
A. Is a soluble
inject able paracetamol
B. Used in
children
C. It is a NSAID
D. It is an
opioid
40.Propofol is administrated for sedation:
A. Increases
heart rate
B. Produces
anaxiolysis
C. Produces
analgesia
D. may be used in
patients with hepatic failure
41.The least reliable site for central temperature monitoring is the:
A. pulmonary
artery
B. Skin of
forehead
C. Distal part of
esophagus
D. Nasopharynx
42.One of the following drugs least likely to cross placenta:
A. Lidocaine
B. Pethidine
C. Midazolam
D. Vecuronium
43.Ketamine:
A. Decreases
intracranial pressure (ICP)
B. Cannot be
given intramuscularly
C. Nor ketamine
is more potent than ketamine
D. Respiratory
depression may rarely occurs with induction doses
44.SA node is the pacemaker of the heart because of:
A. Location in
the right atriumh
B. Neural control
C. natural
akinase of Na
D. Natural
akinase of Ka+
45.The number of oxygen molecules carried by one hemoglobin molecule:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
46.A size E compressed cylinder completely filled with N2O contains liters:
A. 1160
B. 1470
C. 1590
D. 1640
47.The predominate component of Baralime granules is:
A. Water
B. Silica
C. Barium
hydroxide
D. Calcium hydroxide
48.Succinylcholine is contraindicated in routine tracheal intubation in children because of an increased incidence of which of the following side effects:
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Malignant
hyperthermia
C. Sinus
bradycardia
D. Sever malygias
49.Which of the following muscle relaxants the most suitable for rabid intubation in whom Succinylcholine is contraindicated
A. Mivacurium C.
Doxacurium
B. Rocuronium D.
Pipecuronium
50.The LEAST likely complication of laparoscopy includes:
A. Pneumothorax
B. Shoulder pain
C. Gas embolism
D. Left bundle
branch block
51.All of the following factors stimulate release of catecholamine EXCEPT:
A. Painful
stimuli
B. Hypothermia
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Hypoxemia
52.Metoclopramide:
A. May cause
extra pyramidal side effect
B. Relaxes the
lower esophageal sphincter
C. Slow gastric
empting
D. Reliably raise the gastric fluids PH
53.The following are powerful paramagnetic gases
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Nitrous oxide
D. Halothane
54.Humidity can be measured by all EXEPT:
A. mass
spectrometry
B. Chromatography
C. The dew point
D. biological
organ length
55.A patient with FBS concentration of 100 ml/dl undergoing operation lasting for 4hrs udder general anesthesia without intraoperative administration of glucose on emergence the most likely finding will be:
A. marked
hypoglycemia
B. Mild
hypoglycemia
C. Normoglycemia
D. Mild
hyperglycemia
56.Suxamethonium is contraindicated in:
A. Dystrophiamytonica
B. neonates
C. Congestive
heart failure
D. acute
intermittent porphyria
57.All of the following are safe to use in patient with malignant hyperthermia EXCEPT:
A. Halothane C.
Propofol
B. Fentanyl D. Droperidol
58.Naloxone:
A. is a direct
respiratory stimulant
B. may be used to
reverse pruritus following spinal opioids
C. has agonist
properties
D. reverses
opioid- induced vomiting
59.In the recovery respiratory rate measurement are done routinely every:
A. 5 min
B. 10 min
C. 15 min
D. 20 min
60. Witch one of the following regarding spinal anesthesia is true:
A. It can be done
only in sitting position.
B. Sterile
technique is not mandatory.
C. Administration
of 500 ml R/L before the block mandatory
D. It can cause
severe hypertension
61. High concentration of O2 must be avoided in:
A. Asthmatic
patent
B. (COPD) patient
C. Patient with
atelectasis
D. Pneumonia
62.All of the following can be used to reduce the possibility of aspiration EXCEPT:
A. Dietary
restriction
B. Lowering of ph
C. Cricoid
pressure
D. Gastric emptying
63. The proper position for caesarean section is:
A. Trendelenburg
position
B. Supine
position with lift tilt
C. Lithotomy
position
D. Flower s
position
64. In caesarean section narcotic must be given :
A. Preoperatively
B. on induction
C. After the baby
is out
D. Before the
skin incision
65. One of the following is done during failed intubation:
A. Release
cricoid pressure
B. Place the
patient in head – up position
C. Maintain
anesthesia with N2O, O2 and volatile agent
D. Wake the
patient and call for help.
66. Post-anesthetic arrhythmias can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Residual
anesthetic agent
B. Hypocapnia
C. Hypoxemia
D. Pain
67. Double lumen tube is used in:
A. Thoracic
surgery
B. Abdominal
surgery
C. Orthopedic
surgery
D. Open heart surgery
68. The MOST common cause of damage to the eye during anesthesia is :
A. Improper
position
B. Carelessness
C. Compression
D. Trauma
69. Patient should be discharged from the recovery room when the total post-anesthetic score is:
A. 7 C. 9
B. 8 D. 10
70. The nasogastric tube in laparoscopic cholecystectomy is used to :
A. Deflate the
stomach
B. Irrigate the
wound
C. Feed the
patient post operatively
D. None of the
above
71. At what level should the blood sugar of diabetic patient be maintained?
A. Below 120 mg/
100ml (6mmol/1)
B. Between 6 mmol
and 10 mmol/1
C. Between 10mmol
and 20 mmol/1
D. Above 20
mmol/1
72. The best IV induction agent for patient with cardiovascular disease is
A. Etomidate
B. Thiopentone
C. Ketalar
D. Pethidine
73. How long elective surgery should be postponed after myocardial infarction?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 2 years
D. Not at all
74. All of the following can be used for the treatment of local anesthesia toxicity:
A. Propranolol
B. Diazepam
C. Prilocaine
D. Ephedrine
75. Choose the correct statement about general anesthesia for caesarean section:
A. Ergometrine is
contraindicated
B. Fentanyl is
given usually before induction
C. Rapid sequence
induction is used
D. Syntocinon is
used to prevent vomiting
76. Shock syndrome is characterized by:
A. 10 % loss of
blood volume
B. Hypotension,
bradycardia and cold extremities
C. Hypotension,
tachycardia and cold extremities
D. Hot
extremities
77. The internal diameter of an endotracheal tube for an 8 years old child is:
A. 6 mm
B. 7 mm
C. 3.5 mm
D. 4 mm
78. Which of the following is NOT a known adverse effect of thiopentone?
A. Hypotension
B. Laryngospasm
C. Bronchospasm
D. Convulsion
79. One of the following can cause bronchospasm:
A. Deep
anesthesia
B. IV
hydrocortisone
C. Surgical
stimulation
D. IV ketamine
80. The dose of local anesthetic agent used for Bier s block:
A. 10 cc of 3%
Xylocaine
B. 30 cc of 0.5 %
Xylocaine
C. 10 cc of 0.5 %
Bupivacaine
D. 10 cc of 1 %
Bupivacaine
81.Blood transfusion is indicated in young adult males if blood loss is:
A. 10 % of blood
volume (500ml)
B. 20 % of blood
volume ( 1000 ml )
C. More than 40 %
of blood volume
D. 200 ml
82. The normal urine output is:
A. 500 ml/day
B. 1500 ml/day
C. 800 ml/day
D. 5 ml/kg/hr.
83. In cases of severe bleeding the MOST suitable intravenous fluid is:
A. Glucose 5 %
B. Saline 0.9 %
C. Ringer lactate
D. Hydroxyethyl
starch
84.Choose the correct statement about induction of anesthesia:
A. Induction with
IV anesthetic agent is usually smoother than induction with inhalation
agents
B. Inhalational
induction is not preferred in children
C. Rapid sequence
induction is not indicated in emergency surgery
D. Isoflurane is
good for inhalational induction
85. The IV induction agent of choice in hypotensive patient during emergency surgery is:
A. Thiopental C.
Midazolam
B. Ketalar D.
Diprivan
86. The fluid requirement for the maintenance in the 1st 10 kg of child weight is
A. 4ml/kg/hr
B. 10 ml/kg/hr
C. 25 ml/kg/hr
D. 1 ml/kg/hr
87. Which one of the following is the MOST useful monitor in detecting correct placement of an endotracheal tube?
A. Pluses
oximetry
B. Blood pressure
monitoring
C.
Electrocardiogram
D. Capnogram
88. The induction for spontaneous breathing in anesthesia practice:
A. Long operation
lasting more than three hours
B. Abdominal
surgery requiring complete muscle relaxant
C. Short
operation on extremities for healthy adults
D. Operation that
require hyperventilation
89. Family history in preoperative is mandatory to detect:
A. Malignant
hyperthermia
B. Cholinesterase
abnormalities
C. Hemophilia
D. All of the
above
90. The MOST serious anesthetic complication in the late pregnancy is:
A. Teratogenic
effect
B. Spontaneous
abortion
C. Regurgitation
and vomiting
D. Hypoxia
91. Which one of the following is true regarding a patient with ASA II :
A. He is a normal
healthy patient.
B. He is a
patient with mild systemic diseases
C. He is a
patient with sever systemic diseases
D. He is a
moribund patient
92.The preoperative chest X-ray must be done for:
A. All patients
above 50 years
B. All emergency
cases
C. All patients
scheduled for elective surgery
D. None of the above
93. The earliest manifestation of Endobronchial intubation is:
A. Hypoxia
B. Hypercapnia
C. An increases
in peak inspiratory pressure
D. None of the
above
94.The best method of detecting esophageal intubation:
A. Capnography
B. ABGs (arterial
blood gases)
C. CXR (chest
X-ray)
D. Pulse oximetry
95. Treatment of laryngeal spasm includes:
A. Release of
stimulation
B. Deepening the
anesthesia
C. Administration
of 100% O2
D. All of the
above
96. The following are anatomical signs of difficult intubation EXCEPT:
A. Short neck
B. Receding lower
jaw
C. Protruding
teeth
D. Burn scar
97.Which statement about induction of anesthesia is true?
A. Inhalation
induction is smoother than intravenous induction
B. Intravenous
induction is smoother than inhalation induction
C. Inhalation induction
is contraindication in children
D. Intravenous induction is contraindication in children
98. Inhalation induction is contraindicated in:
A. Children
B. Eye surgery
C. Full stomach
D. All of the
above
99. The short duration of action of Thiopentone is related to:
A. Metabolism
B. Redistribution
C. Degradation
D. None of the
above
100. In case of regurgitation the patient should be placed immediately in:
A. Sitting
position
B. Lithotomy
position
C. Prone position
D. Trendelenburg
position