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MCQ for DHA & DOH Exams ( Part 2 )

table of contents
  1. 101. Treatment of aspiration pneumonia include all of the following EXCEPT
  2. 102. Which statement is true regarding the intra-arterial injection of sodium Thiopentone?
  3. 103. Laryngeal spasm occurs MOST commonly during:
  4. 104. Which intercostal space is used for aspiration of air from the pleura cavity?
  5. 105. Soda lime is:
  6. 106. Heparin solution contains:
  7. 107. Wright respirometer is located:
  8. 108. Minute ventilation equals:
  9. 109. Maple son “D“ circuit is called:
  10. 110. Ketamine:
  11. 111. Proposal is:
  12. 112. Thiopentone:
  13. 113. Su:
  14. 114. Atria:
  15. 115. Morphine:
  16. 116. Vector;
  17. 117. Rocuronium:
  18. 118. Fentanyl:
  19. 119. Sufentanil:
  20. 120. Adrenaline:
  21. 121. Atropine:
  22. 122. Ephedrine:
  23. 123. Narcon (Naloxone):
  24. 124. In recovery room:
  25. 125. Recovery position:
  26. 126. Drug to be kept in recovery:
  27. 127. Intubation trolley should have all of the below EXEPT:
  28. 128. Intubation of tracheal in everyday practice confirmed by:
  29. 129. Foley’s catheter:
  30. 130. The following agent reduces gastric acidity EXEPT:
  31. 131. Difficult intubation trolley contains the following items EXEPT:
  32. 132. The volume of stomach contents is reduced by :
  33. 133. The following drug should NOT be given in the presence of positive family history of malignant hyperthermia:
  34. 134. The pest muscle relaxant that be given in renal failure patient is :
  35. 135. Miller laryngeal blade size (1) is used to intubate:
  36. 136. (EMLA) cream contains the following two local anesthetics:
  37. 137. The principle respiratory muscle is:
  38. 138. In case of severe hypotension due to dehydration the following drug/fluid can be given:
  39. 139. The dose of Atracurium required to intubation adult patient is :
  40. 140. According to the American society of anesthesiologist physical status (ASAII)means:
  41. 141. (1) par equals:
  42. 142. Function residual capacity (FRC) equals:
  43. 143. The following are pre-setting for pressure control ventilation EXEPT:
  44. 144. Physiologic dead space equals:
  45. 145. The term (P5O) means:
  46. 146. The normal (P5O) is:
  47. 147. The blood unit can be diluted with the following fluid:
  48. 148. The MOST dangerous cardiac arrhythmia is:
  49. 149. The following drugs can be used to treat cardiac arrhythmia EXEPT:
  50. 150. The suitable endotracheal tube for thyroidectomy is:
  51. 151. The following are pre-setting for volume control ventilation except:
  52. 152. the most common (EGG) lead used to monitor the heart during general anesthesia is:
  53. 153. The term (NPO) means:
  54. 154. Throat pack is usually inserted in the following case:
  55. 155. Injection of Suxamethonium to paraplegic patient causes the following:
  56. 156. Etomidate is:
  57. 157. The following IV hypnotic has analgesic effect:
  58. 158. Modern anesthesia machines contain the following inhalation anesthetics except :
  59. 159. Modern anesthesia machines contain the following medical gas except :
  60. 160. The following drugs can be given through infusion pump except:
  61. 161. The term (CPAP) means:
  62. 162. Labtalolis:
  63. 163. In sickle cell disease the following hemoglobin is usually raised:
  64. 164. The (IV) hypnotic that can be given through intramuscular injection is:
  65. 165. Ondansetron is: (Zofran):
  66. 166. Prolonged infusion of sodium nitroprosside causes:-
  67. 167. The best (IV) hypnotic for day case surgery is:
  68. 168. The treatment of choice for hypertensive patient due to hypervolemia is:
  69. 169. Midazolam belongs to the following drug category:
  70. 170. In case of severe hypotension the following drug can be given:
  71. 171. The following (IV) hypnotic is not suitable for eye surgery:
  72. 172. The best premedcant in pediatrics is:
  73. 173. Heavy Marcaine 0.5% is used for
  74. 174. Marcaine 0.5% contain:
  75. 175. In case of severe hypoglycemia the following fluid should be given :
  76. 176. The following analgesic causes respiratory depression:
  77. 177. The term (COPD) means:
  78. 178. One of the following produces bronchodilator in asthmatic patient:
  79. 179. Which of the following is not one of the monitoring systems:
  80. 180. Dopamine:
  81. 182. When endotracheal tube is introduced in esophagus
  82. 183. Ephedrine :
  83. 184. Non depolarizing muscle relaxants are reversed by:
  84. 185. Treatment of intra-arterial thiopentone injection is:
  85. 186. The proper patient position during laparoscopic abdominal operations is:
  86. 187. Traction on extra ocular muscle leads to (oculucardiac reflex):
  87. 188. Rby manifested ورم في الغده الكضريه Pheochromocytoma.
  88. 189. Which agent is the best antiemetic?
  89. 190. Insulin is
  90. 191. All of the following are Antihypertensive EXCEPT:
  91. 192. Mepredine (Pethidine) is:
  92. 193. Atracurium is metabolized in:
  93. 194. The following inhalational anesthetic has pleasant smell:
  94. 195. Ketamine is used in
  95. 196. (FRC) means
  96. 197. Inadequate analgesia produces
  97. 198. Propranolol is:
  98. 199. The following can be given through the endotracheal tube during CPR
  99. 200. One of the following is not a diuretic:

101. Treatment of aspiration pneumonia include all of the following EXCEPT

A. 100% O2 C. Antibiotics

B. antiemetic D. Steroids

102. Which statement is true regarding the intra-arterial injection of sodium
Thiopentone?

A. The cannula should be removed immediately

B. The cannula should be left in place

C. Adrenaline 0.1 mg should be administered IV

D. None of the above

103. Laryngeal spasm occurs MOST commonly during:

A. Eye surgery

B. Ear surgery

C. Anal surgery

D. Abdominal surgery

104. Which intercostal space is used for aspiration of air from the pleura cavity?

A. 2ed intercostal space

B. 3ed intercostal space

C. 4th intercostal space

D. 5th intercostal space

105. Soda lime is:

A. Carbon dioxide absorbent

B. Nitrous oxide absorbent

C. Carbon monoxide absorbent

D. Use in maple son circuit

106. Heparin solution contains:

A. 500 units/ml

B. 5000 units/ml

C. 50 units/ml

D. 5 units/ml

107. Wright respirometer is located:

A. In the inspiratory limb of the breathing tube

B. In the expiratory limb of the breathing tube

C. Between the flow meter and the vaporizer

D. Between the fresh gas inlet and the inspiratory limb

108. Minute ventilation equals:

A. Tidal volume x peak airway pressure

B. Tidal volume x respiratory rate

C. Tidal volume x lung compliance

D. Patient weight x 10

109. Maple son “D“ circuit is called:

A. Ma gill circuit

B. Bain circuit

C. Jackson –Rees circuit

D. Water’s circuit

110. Ketamine:

A. Is not analgesic

B. Decreases secretion

C. Only given IM

D. Increases heart rate and blood pressure

111. Proposal is:

A. Colorless liquid

B. Causes pain on injection

C. A muscle relaxant

D. Antibiotic

112. Thiopentone:

A. Takes a long time for onset

B. Causes convulsion

C. Can be mixed with other drugs

D. Causes sleep in 30 seconds

113. Su:

A. Is a depolarizing muscle relaxant

B. Not used in emergency

C. Dose is 10mg/kg IV

D. Is safe in malignant hyperthermia

114. Atria:

A. Metabolized in liver

B. Not used in renal failure

C. Is depolarizing muscle relaxant

D. Causes release of histamine

115. Morphine:

A. Is the weakest of all opioid?

B. Is synthetic opioid

C. Used in dose of 0.1mg/kg

D. Dose not cause vomiting

116. Vector;

A. Is a non-depolarizing muscle relaxant

B. Cannot be used in cardiac surgery

C. Causes release of histamine

D. Very quick in onset

117. Rocuronium:

A. Is short acting muscle relaxant

B. Has slow onset of action

C. Not used in emergency instead of Su

D. Can be used in rapid sequence induction

118. Fentanyl:

A. Is used in dose of 5 – 10 mg/kg

B. Is 100 times more potent than morphine

C. Release histamine

D. Not used in long surgeries

119. Sufentanil:

A. Is a sedative

B. Is used to prevent vomiting

C. Causes post-operative respiratory depression

D. Increases pain during surgery

120. Adrenaline:

A. Is not present in the body

B. Is not useful in cardiac arrest

C. Increases heart rate and blood pressure

D. Decreases heart rate and blood pressure

121. Atropine:

A. Increases secretion

B. Decreases heart rate

C. Is used as pre medication in children

D. Dose is 5mg/kg

122. Ephedrine:

A. Is a naturally occurring drug

B. Acts on both alpha and beta adrenergic receptor

C. Is not useful in cesarean section

D. It is not controlled drug

123. Narcon (Naloxone):

A. is used to reverse action of Morphine

B. Is a strong analgesia

C. Is a sedative

D. It has no side effect

124. In recovery room:

A. No monitoring is required

B. Patient is left unattended

C. Patient does not need any pain relief

D. Patient is closely monitored till wide-awake

125. Recovery position:

A. On the patient’s back

B. On patient’s abdominal

C. On left lateral (side) position

D. In sitting position

126. Drug to be kept in recovery:

A. Antibiotics

B. Spinal heavy Marcaine 0.5%

C. Atropine and other emergency drug

D. Propranolol

127. Intubation trolley should have all of the below EXEPT:

A. Different size of ET tube

B. Different size of laryngoscope blades

C. Suction catheter

D. Laryngoscopes without a good light

128. Intubation of tracheal in everyday practice confirmed by:

A. Chest X-ray

B. CT scan of chest

C. End tidal carbon dioxide

D. ECG

129. Foley’s catheter:

A. Used to measure central venous pressure

B. Used for oral suction of secretion

C. Used for draining of abscess

D. Used to measure urine out bout

130. The following agent reduces gastric acidity EXEPT:

A. Sodium citrate

B. Ranitidine

C. Omeprazole

D. Metoclopramide

131. Difficult intubation trolley contains the following items EXEPT:

A. Stilettes and bougies

B. Intubating LMA

C. Anesthetic drugs

D. Nasal and oral airways

132. The volume of stomach contents is reduced by :

A. Sodium citrate

B. Cimetidine

C. Atropine

D. Propranolol

133. The following drug should NOT be given in the presence of positive family history of malignant hyperthermia:

A. Atracurium

B. Thiopentone

C. Suxamethonium

D. Propofol

134. The pest muscle relaxant that be given in renal failure patient is :

A. Suxamethonium

B. Pancuronium

C. Vecuronium

D. Atracurium

135. Miller laryngeal blade size (1) is used to intubate:

A. Small babies

B. Adult males

C. Pregnant women

D. Obese patient

136. (EMLA) cream contains the following two local anesthetics:

A. Marcaine + Ropivacaine

B. Lidocaine + Prilocaine

C. Cocaine + Lidocaine

D. Lidocaine + Marcaine

137. The principle respiratory muscle is:

A. The diaphragm C. gluteus

B. Pectoral's D. Sternocleidomastoid

138. In case of severe hypotension due to dehydration the following drug/fluid can be given:

A. D5W (dextrose)

B. Ringer lactate

C. Lasix

D. Phenoxy benzamine

139. The dose of Atracurium required to intubation adult patient is :

A. 1mg/kg

B. 0.5mg/kg

C. 1.5mg/kg

D. 0.1mglkg

140. According to the American society of anesthesiologist physical status
(ASAII)means:

A. Healthy patient

B. Patient with severe systemic disease

C. Moribund patient with threatening life disease

D. Patient with mild systemic disease

141. (1) par equals:

A. 1000cm H2O C. 500 cm H2O

B. 100 cm H2O D. 750 cm H2O

142. Function residual capacity (FRC) equals:

A. Total lung capacity + Tidal volume

B. Residual volume + Expiratory reserve volume

C. Inspiratory reserve volume + Residual volume

D. Tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume

143. The following are pre-setting for pressure control ventilation EXEPT:

A. I/E ratio

B. Airway pressure

C. Frequency

D. Tidal volume

144. Physiologic dead space equals:

A. 1/2 tidal volume

B. 1/4 tidal volume

C. 1/3 tidal volume

D. 1/5 tidal volume

145. The term (P5O) means:

A. O2 tension at which hemoglobin is 50% saturated

B. O2 tension at sea level

C. O2 tension at 50 meter above sea level

D. O2 tension at 50% O2 concentration (Fi O2 =50%)

146. The normal (P5O) is:

A. 27 mm Hg

B. 50 m Hg

C. 90 mm Hg

D. 99 mm Hg

147. The blood unit can be diluted with the following fluid:

A. Lactated ringer

B. Normal saline (0.9%)

C. 1/2 normal saline (0.45%)

D. Dextrose (DSW)

148. The MOST dangerous cardiac arrhythmia is:

A. Ventricular tachycardia

B. Atrial premature contraction

C. Supra ventricular tachycardia

D. Ventricular fibrillation

149. The following drugs can be used to treat cardiac arrhythmia EXEPT:

A. Xylocaine 1 %

B. Amiodarone

C. Esmolol

D. Marcaine

150. The suitable endotracheal tube for thyroidectomy is:

A. RAE tube

B. Double lumen tube

C. Armored(reinforced) tube

D. Small size ordinary tube

151. The following are pre-setting for volume control ventilation except:

A. I / E ratio

B. Tidal volume

C. Airway pressure

D. Respiratory rate

152. the most common (EGG) lead used to monitor the heart during general anesthesia is:

A. Lead I C. Lead aVR

B. Lead II D. Lead V6

153. The term (NPO) means:

A. Patient should fast

B. No drugs should be given

C. No premedication

D. No ( IV ) fluids should be given

154. Throat pack is usually inserted in the following case:

A. Mastectomy

B. Cleft palate repair

C. Spleenectomy

D. Open heart surgery

155. Injection of Suxamethonium to paraplegic patient causes the following:

A. Hyperkalemia

B. Hypernatremia

C. Hypokalemia

D. Hyponatermia

156. Etomidate is:

A. IV hypotonic

B. Analgesic

C. Muscle relaxant

D. Inhalation anesthetic

157. The following IV hypnotic has analgesic effect:

A. Ketamine

B. Propofol

C. Midazolam

D. Thiopentone

158. Modern anesthesia machines contain the following inhalation anesthetics except :

A. Isoflurane

B. Desflurane

C. Sevoflurane

D. Ether

159. Modern anesthesia machines contain the following medical gas except :

A. Oxygen

B. Cyclopropane

C. Medical air

D. Nitrous oxide

160. The following drugs can be given through infusion pump except:

A. Insulin

B. Heparin

C. Antibiotics

D. Suxamethonium

161. The term (CPAP) means:

A. Positive air way pressure

B. Negative air way pressure

C. Continuous positive air way pressure

D. Positive air way pressure during inspiration

162. Labtalolis:

A. A vasopressor drug

B. A diuretic

C. A bronchial dilator

D. A hypertensive drug

163. In sickle cell disease the following hemoglobin is usually raised:

A. Hemoglobin A2

B. Carboxyl hemoglobin

C. Hemoglobin S

D. Hemoglobin A

164. The (IV) hypnotic that can be given through intramuscular injection is:

A. Propofol

B. Etomidate

C. Thiopentone

D. Ketamine

165. Ondansetron is: (Zofran):

A. Antiemetic

B. Anticoagulant

C. Antibiotic

D. Analgesic

166. Prolonged infusion of sodium nitroprosside causes:-

A. Chloride toxicity

B. Cyanide toxicity

C. Carbon monoxide toxicity

D. Hypokalemia

167. The best (IV) hypnotic for day case surgery is:

A. Propofol

B. Midazolam

C. Ketamine

D. Thiopentone

168. The treatment of choice for hypertensive patient due to hypervolemia is:

A. Hydralazine

B. Labetalol

C. Lasix

D. Esmolol infusion

169. Midazolam belongs to the following drug category:

A. Benzylisoquinoline

B. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory

C. Benzodiazepine

D. Tricyclic anti-depressant

170. In case of severe hypotension the following drug can be given:

A. Lasix

B. Captopril

C. Ephedrine

D. Atropine

171. The following (IV) hypnotic is not suitable for eye surgery:

A. Thiopentone

B. Diazepam

C. Ketamine

D. Etomidate

172. The best premedcant in pediatrics is:

A. Phenergan orally

B. Morphine (IM)

C. Ketamine (IM)

D. Midazolam orally

173. Heavy Marcaine 0.5% is used for

A. Epidural anesthesia

B. Spinal anesthesia

C. Peripheral nerve block

D. Brachial plexus block

174. Marcaine 0.5% contain:

A. Marcaine 50mg/ml

B. Marcaine 5mg/ml

C. Marcaine 0.5mg/ml

D. Marcaine 500mg/ml

175. In case of severe hypoglycemia the following fluid should be given :

A. Ringer lactate

B. Dextrose 5%+ 0.9%normal saline

C. Dextrose 50%

D. Normal saline

176. The following analgesic causes respiratory depression:

A. Paracetamol

B. Aspirin

C. Morphine

D. Ketoprofen

177. The term (COPD) means:

A. Chronic restrictive pulmonary disease

B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

C. Continuous positive airway pressure

D. Continuous positive end expiratory pressure

178. One of the following produces bronchodilator in asthmatic patient:

A. Propranolol

B. Atracurium

C. Morphine

D. Isoflurane

179. Which of the following is not one of the monitoring systems:

A. pulse oximetry

B. ECG lead II

C. CVP central venous pressure catheter

D. Electric diathermy

180. Dopamine:

A. Is naturally present in the body

B. Decrease blood pressure

C. Does not stimulates D1 and D2 receptors

D. used in treatment of diabetic patients

181. Atropine:

A. Decrees secretion

B. Increase abdominal colic

C. Cannot crosses BBB

D. Decrease heart rate

182. When endotracheal tube is introduced in esophagus

A. ETCO2 is the most diagnostic method

B. Detected by pulse oximetry

C. central venous pressure is decreased

D. Peripheral nerve stimulator is of great value

183. Ephedrine :

A. Is Vasopressor

B. Increase blood pressure

C. used in spinal shock

D. All of above

184. Non depolarizing muscle relaxants are reversed by:

A. cholinesterase inhibitors

B. succinylcholine

C. Pseudocholine esterase

D. Acetylcholine

185. Treatment of intra-arterial thiopentone injection is:

A. heparin

B. Subcutaneous Xylocaine

C. Potent analgesic

D. All of above

186. The proper patient position during laparoscopic abdominal operations is:

A. left lateral (side) position

B. Sitting position

C. Trendelenburg position

D. Prone position

187. Traction on extra ocular muscle leads to (oculucardiac reflex):

A. tachycardia

B. Supra ventricular tachycardia

C. Reflex bradycardia

D. Atrial fibrillation

188. Rby manifested ورم في الغده الكضريه Pheochromocytoma.

A. sever malignant hypertension

B. sever hypotension

C. Hyperglycemia

D. Anemia

189. Which agent is the best antiemetic?

A. Metoclopramide

B. Ondansetron

C. cimetidine

D. Ranitidine

190. Insulin is

A. anticoagulant

B. Analgesic

C. Antipyretic

D. Hypoglycemic

191. All of the following are Antihypertensive EXCEPT:

A. nitroglycerine

B. phenylephrine

C. Calcium channel blockers

D. phentolamine(regetine)

192. Mepredine (Pethidine) is:

A. Diuretic

B. Muscle relaxant

C. Hypnotic

D. Analgesic

193. Atracurium is metabolized in:

A. liver

B. Kidney

C. Blood

D. Nerve endings

194. The following inhalational anesthetic has pleasant smell:

A. Isoflurane

B. Enflurane

C. Halothane

D. Desflurane

195. Ketamine is used in

A. Induction of anesthesia in Asthmatic patients

B. Pediatric anesthesia

C. Shocked patients anesthesia

D. All of above

196. (FRC) means

A. Functional residual capacity

B. Forced residual capacity

C. Final renal concentration

D. None of above

197. Inadequate analgesia produces

A. hypotension

B. Hypertension

C. Hypoglycemia

D. Hyperthermia

198. Propranolol is:

A. Alpha blocker

B. Beta blocker

C. Alpha agonist

D. Beta agonist

199. The following can be given through the endotracheal tube during CPR

A. Adrenaline

B. Lidocaine

C. Vecuronium

D. Thiopental

200. One of the following is not a diuretic:

A. Furosemide

B. Spironolactone

C. Ropivacaine

D. Acetazolamide

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