1. The best to relieve status asthmatics is:
A. IV aminophylline
B. Atropine
C. Inderal
D. Subcutaneous
adrenaline
2. Neostigmine reverses the action of :
A. succinylcholine
B. Naloxone
C. pancuronium
D. Mepivacaine
3. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory (NSAI) drugs:
A. Inhibit
prostaglandin E
B. Block spinal
nerve roots
C. Interrupt pain
pathway in spinal cord
D. stimulate release
of endorphin and encephalin
4. Inderal
A. produce
bronchospasm
B. used in treatment
of Thyrotoxicosis
C. used in treatment
of tachycardia
D. All of above
5. You check vital signs during recovery every:
A. 15 min
B. 10 min
C. 5 min
D. 30 min
6. All the following are true about injection of spinal anesthesia except
A. Done on the
sitting and supine position
B. Only median a
broach is used
C. Tuohy needle is
used
D. The needle sizes
range from 20 – 29
7. Rapid sequence inductions (used with aspiration expectancy) is characterized by
A. 5 min of
Preoxygenation
B. No use of manual
ventilation
C. Cricoid pressure
D. All of these
8. To prevent aortocaval compression syndrome (in C.S) no need to:
A. Postpone the
surgery
B. Pre load with 1 L
of I.V fluid
C. Pout the patient
in left lateral supine position
D. Use vaso pressers
9. All these are true about caesarean section except
A. Epidural is
preferable
B. Opioids are used
with induction
C. There is high
risk of aspiration
D. Halothane can
cause bleeding
10. Which is true regarding diabetes mellitus?
A. Always use
dextrose for intra operative I.V fluids
B. The insulin dose
should not be taken in the day of operation
C. Keep level
between 120 – 200 mg\dl
D. Hypovolemia is
preferred for them
11. Myocardial infarction is
A. Not expected in
hypertensive patients
B. Diagnosed with
nerve stimulator
C. A cause of
surgery postponing and medical consultation
D. More common in
pediatrics
12. A chilled of 6 years old should have EET with
A. 5.5 mm internal
diameter (4+ age/4)
B. 17 cm cut length
(14+ age/2)
C. No cuff (more
than 10 years or 30 Kg)
D. All of these
13. The
anticonvulsants induction agent with possibility of laryngeal and bronchial
spasm and
hypotension is
A. Morphine
B. Ketamine
C. Thiopental
D. Propranolol
14. which of the following is not good for the asthmatic patient
A. Deep anesthesia
B. I.V
Hydrocortisone
C. Ketamine
D. Atracurium
15. which of the following is true regarding replacement of the blood loss
A. Blood transfusion
should start when the loss is 20 % or 1 L
B. When crystalloids
are used the same volume should be given
C. Blood products
are not used
D. Colloids have the
least efficacy
16. The benefits of the intra operative urine output measurement are
A. Diuretic therapy
guidance
B. Ensure normal
renal functions
C. Indicator of I.V
fluids adequacy
D. All of these
17. The cylinder which is attached to anesthesia machine is:
A. G C. E
B. D D. F
18. Regarding
induction of anesthesia with inhalational agents which true from the
following
A. Used in Slick's
maneuver
B. Isoflurane is the
agent of choice and it used in difficult intubation
C. Faster than
induction with I.V agents
D. Common in adults
19. The accurate intra operative fluids is calculated depending upon
A. Fasting hours
B. Daily requirement
C. Intra operative
loss (evaporation and bleeding)
D. All of these
20. One of the indications of muscle relaxants use is
A. Short operations
B. Hand surgery
C. Mechanical
ventilation use
D. All of these
21. Main therapy of Scholine apnea (Succinylcholine prolonged respiratory arrest) is
A. Cholinesterase
inhibitors
B. Family history
C. Fresh frozen
plasma
D. None of these
22. The packed RBCs concentration of hematocrite is:
A. 40% C. 70%
B. 60% D. 80%
23. A. 2 years –
child with cerebral palsy with known gastroesophageal reflex is
scheduled to undergo
iliopsoas release under general anesthesia. Which of the following would be the most
appropriate technique for induction general anesthesia in this patient?
A. Inhalational
Induction with sevoflurane followed by the mask anesthesia with cricoid
pressure
B. Induction with
sevoflurane followed by tracheal intubation
C. Rapid – sequence
induction with Thiopental and Scholine with followed by tracheal
intubation
D. Intravenous
induction with propofol and atracurium followed by the tracheal
intubation
24. The hetastarch affect platelet by:
A. Dilute the
platelets
B. Diluting the
coagulating factor
C. Decrease the
function of platelets
D. All of the above
25. The patient with full stomach is not longer at risk of aspiration
A. Once fully
relaxed with non depolarizing muscle relaxant
B. After the stomach
has been decompressed with a nasogastric tube
C. If he or she is
going on the endotracheal tube prior to extubation
D. When rapid
sequence induction is followed
26. Maintenance fluid requirements for a 24- K child are
A. 24ml/h
B. 30 ml/h
C. 54ml/h
D. 64ml/h
27. The typical 2- years-old child should be intubated with an endotracheal tube having an internal diameter of
A. 3 mm
B. 3.5mm
C. 4.5mm
D. 5.5mm
28. Signs of inadequate anesthesia include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Eyelid movement
B. Pupillary
constriction (miosis)
C. sweating
D. limb movement
29. The most important site of drug transformation is usually the
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Lungs
D. Spleen
30. Which of the following is not considered endocrine gland?
A. Pancreas
B. Liver
C. Parathyroid gland
D. Adrenal gland
31. The most important goal in the treatment of diabetic patient undergoing anesthesia is to
A. Keep blood sugar in normal range
B. Prevent
hyperglycemia
C. Prevent
hypoglycemia
D. Prevent
Ketoacidosis
32. Total body water in an adult constitutes
A. 60% of body
weight
B. 40% of body
weight
C. 30% of body
weight
D. 20% of body
weight
33. Body temperature may change intraoperative because of all the following EXCEPT
A. Exposure of the
body surface
B. Intravenous
fluids
C. Oxygen
concentration
D. Humidity of
inspired gas
34. The tracheal tube cuff must be preventing aspiration and must not inflate too much to avoid tissue damage the pressure must be:
A. 5 mmHg
B. 20 mm Hg
C. 40 mmHg
D. 60 mmHg
35. Recognition of hypoxemia in the recovery room
A. Depends on the
detection of cyanosis
B. Depends on the
detection of apnea
C. Depends on the
detection on circulatory Reponses
D. Is best monitored
with pulse oximetery
236. In the recovery the adequacy of O2 measured by:
A. Cyanosis
B. Pulse oximeter
C. Not measured
37. Adequacy of alveolar ventilation is determined measuring
A. Oxygen tension
B. Oxygen saturation
C. Carbon dioxide
tension
D. Cardiac output
38. The principle muscle of aspiration is
A. Diaphragm
B. Intercostals
C. Abdominals
D. Scalenes
39. Humidification of inhaled air or gases is
A. More efficient
with endotracheal tube or tracheostomy tube in place
B. At is optimum
with patient breathing through the nose
C. More efficient
with an open system than a closed system
D. Increase with the
administration of atropine
40. The position of tip of the CVP can be confirmed by all below methods Except :
A. X-ray
B. Pressure
monitoring
C. Doppler
monitoring while injection 1ml of air
D. Echocardiogram
41. When inserting a CVP line
A. Air embolism may
occur
B. The tip should be
placed in the right atrium
C. Use of external
jugular vein causes many of major complications
D. The left side of
neck is preferred
42. Regarding CVP, which of the following is false?
A. Catheter should
be inserted into the right atrium
B. Causes increase
in BP
C. It is used to
measure fluids
43. In the circulation system, which of these parameters is important?
A. O2 consumption C.
T.V
B. R.R D. C.V.P
44. The preoperative ECG can be used to detect all of the following EXCEPT
A. Chamber
enlargement
B. Ischemic heart
disease
C. Electrolyte
disturbances
D. Valvular heart
disease
45. Sinus bradycardia
A. Is serious
arrhythmia when seen during anesthesia
B. Is an irregular
rhythm
C. Always requires
treatment
D. Is characterized by rate of 40-60 beats per minute
46. Technical
difficulties in treating patients with morbid obesity include all of the
following EXCEPT :
A. Spuriously low
blood pressure cuff reading
B. Difficulties
venous access
C. Difficulties
intubation and airway maintenance with mask
D. Difficulty with
nerve block
47. The average unit of packed red cell, processed by centrifugation , has a hematocrit
A. 40%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 70%
48. In a 12- years
–old child the length of an endotracheal tube ( from the lips to the
trachea) should be :
A. 12 cm
B. 14cm
C. 16 cm
D. 18 cm
49. Uncuffed endotracheal tubes are usually preferred for children younger than age .
A. 3 years
B. 5 years
C. 8 years
D. 10 years
50. Drugs considered suitable for anesthetized patients who are susceptible to malignant hyperthermia include all of the following EXCEPT :
A. Lidocaine D.
vecuronium
B. N2O
C. Halothane
51. Gastric emptying is decreased by all of the following EXCEPT :
A. Pain
B. Narcotics
C. Ethanol
D. Cigarette smoking
52. Which of the
following medications may be efficacious for Treatment of nausea in
patients who have
received spinal anesthesia ?
A. Droperidol
B. Oxygen
C. Ephedrine ( if
hypotension)
D. Phentolamin
53. The most common
reason for admitting out patients to the hospital following
general anesthesia
is
A. Inability to void
B. Inability to
ambulate
C. Surgical pain
D. Nausea and vomiting
54. The lower limb nerve which is the most commonly damaged during anesthesia is:
A. Femoral nerve
B. anterior tibial
C. greater sciatic
D. common peroneal
nerve
55. Allergic
reactions occurring the immediate peri-operative period are most
commonly
attributable to administration of
A. Muscle relaxants
B. local anesthetics
C. Antibiotics
D. Opioids
56. All of the
following is component of the post – Anesthetic Discharge Scoring System
(PADSS) used to
evaluate suitability of a patient to be discharged from an ambulatory
surgical facility
EXCEPT :
A. Drinking
B. Ambulation
C. Nausea and
vomiting
57. The most sensitive early sign of malignant hyperthermia during general anesthesia is
A. Tachycardia
B. Hypertension
C. Fever
D. Increased end –
expired CO2 tension
58. A 3 – years -
old child scheduled for tonsillectomy. Clear liquid may be consumed
up to how many hours
preoperatively
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
59. Which of the following peripheral nerves is most likely to become injurer in patients who under general anesthesia?
A. ulnar nerve
B. Median nerve
C. radial nerve
D. Common peroneal
nerve
60. Which of the
following intravenous fluids can be used to decrease the viscosity of
packed RBCs?
A. D5W ( 5% dextrose
in water )
B. D10 W ( 10%
dextrose in water )
C. Normal saline
D. Lactated ranger
61. Which of the following is isotonic solution?
A. Dextrose 10%
B. Normal saline
0.9%
C. Dextrose water
D. Normal saline
1.8%
62. All of the following are the classic signs of hemolytic transfusion reaction in patients under general anesthesia EXCEPT :
A. Generalized bleeding
B. Hypotension
C. Hemoglobinuria
D. Fever
63. When we put the packet RBCs in room temperature, the platelet is:
A. Destroyed
B. Diluted
C. Malfunction
D. Increase
platelets life span
64. The rational of storage of platelets at room temperature ( 22c) is
A. It maintains
platelet count
B. It optimize
platelet function
C. It reduce chance
of infection
D. It reduce the
incidence of allergic reaction
65. An infant of 10kg weight, the blood volume is:
A. 650 ml
B. 800 ml
C. 1100 ml
D. 1300 ml
66. Proper
processing of platelet concentration ( to avoid future hemolytic transfusion
reaction ) before
administration involves
A. Type and cross match
B. ABO and Rh
matching
C. Rh matching only
D. ABO matching only
67. Which of the following volatile anesthetics contain preservatives?
A. Sevoflurane
B. Desflurane
C. Isoflurane D.
Halothane
68. The reason
desflurane is not used for inhalational induction in clinical practice is
because of
A. Its propensity to
produce hypertension in high concentrations
B. Is propensity to
produce airway irritability
C. Its propensity to
produce tachyarrhythmias
D. Its propensity to
produce nodal rhythms
69. During spontaneous breathing , volatile anesthetics
A. Increase VT and
decrease reparatory rate
B. Increase VT and
increase reparatory rate
C. Decrease VT and
decrease reparatory rate
D. Decrease VT and
Increase reparatory rate
70. The laryngeal mask airway
A. Protects against
respiration
B. May prevent
airway obstruction during monitoring anesthesia care
C. Requires rigid or
flexible fiber – optic laryngoscope for proper placement
D. Permits positive
pressure – ventilation
71. Venous air embolism can be detected by all the following EXCEPT :
A. Alternation in heart sound detected by the Precordial Doppler
B. Decrease in
expired carbon dioxide on capnometer
C. Increase in
expired nitrogen measure by mass spectroscopy
D. Decrease in
oxygen saturation indicated by oximeter
72. A Capnometer may detect
A. Exhaustion of
carbon dioxide absorbent
B. Malfunction of an
open scavenging system
C. Delivery of
hypoxic gas mixture
D. Disconnection of
wall oxygen supply
73. The suction port of fiber – optic bronchoscope may be used to do all of the following except :
A. Administration of
oxygen
B. Spray local
anesthetic
C. Aspiration
tracheal secretion
D. Ventilate the
patient during bronchoscopy
74. Nasopharyngeal
airways are contraindicated in the patient with these conditions
EXCEPT:
A. Nasal polyps
B. Infection of
nasopharynx
C. The jaw wired
shout
D. A very low
platelet
75. When using Macintosh blade of laryngoscopy , the
A. Epiglottis is
left directly
B. Laryngoscope is held in the right hand
C. Blade insert the
mouth on the right side
D. Tip is advanced
into the vallecula
76. All of the following are true of the lithotomy position EXEPT:
A. The back is
supine
B. The knee is
flexed
C. The hips are
flexed
D. The legs are
internally rotated
77. lithotomy position is:
A. neck flexion
B. hip flexion
C. leg internal
rotation
D. shoulder flexion
78. Overfilling of a vaporizer
A. Will cause the
vaporizer not function
B. Will yield a
concentration of agent lower than that dialed
C. Io not likely
with modern vaporizers
D. Will decrease
oxygen delivery
79. The indicator in carbon dioxide absorbent is:
A. Methylene blue
B. Ethyl violet
C. Bromthymol blue
D. Phenolphthalein
80. Electocautery
machines do not cause ventricular fibrillation because the current
they deliver differs
from the electric current supplied by wall electrical outlet
primarily by being
A. Direct current
B. Low voltage
C. Low in frequency
D. High in frequency
81. A mechanism
used to reduced The pressure of a gas from a compressed gas
cylinder to a
usable, nearly constant pressure is
A. A gage
B. A Flowmeter
C. An Indicator
D. A Regulator
82. An open waste gas scavenging system
A. Must have a
negative – pressure relief valve
B. Must have a
positive – pressure relief valve
C. Must connected to
a source of vacuum
D. Does not need a
reservoir
83. The position best tolerated by the surgical patient is the
A. Lithotomy
position
B. Prone position
C. Horizontal Supine
position
D. Trendelenburg
position
84. The negative pressure leak test
A. Is accomplished
by the having the clinician apply mouth suction to the tubing
connected to the
common gas outlet
B. Reliably finds
leaks in the carbon dioxide absorber
C. Is only
appropriate for anesthesia machines containing a check valve downstream
from the vaporizer
D. May detect
internal vaporizer leak
85. In closed- circuit anesthesia , the one parameter that must be met is the
A. Tidal volume
B. Minute volume
C. Respiratory rate
D. Oxygen
consumption
86. The oxygen tanks on anesthesia machine are
A. G tanks
B. M tanks
C. E tanks
D. D tanks
287. Regarding intra-arterial BP monitoring we insert transducer and then connect tube which is false:
A. air bubble must
be removed from the tube
B. the tube must be
of short length
C. tube lower
resistance from inside
D. tube soft
materials
88. Which of the following is not colloid solution?
A. 5% albumin
B. 20% albumin
C. 6% heptastich
D. 7.5% sodium
chloride
89. patients with PCO2 of 40mmhg and HCO3 of 24 m/ml the PH are:
A. Normal range
B. 7.3 and causes is
respiratory
C. 7.3 and causes is
metabolic
D. 7.5 and cause is
metabolic
90. Renal blood supply is:
A. 20%
B. 30%
C. 21%
D. 45%
91. Which of the following solutions is not colloid?
A. Albumin
B. Hetastarch
C. N.S
D. Dextran
92. Wrist drop may result in:
A. Radial nerve
injury
B. Ulnar nerve
injury
C. Median nerve
injury
D. Musclocutanious nerve injury
93. In the patient full stomach which of this factor element the hazard of aspiration:
A. N.G tube
B. Rapid sequence
induction
C. Metoclopramide
D. All of the above
94. Stage 2 anesthesia can be characterized by all of the following EXCEPT :
A. Amnesia
B. Purposeless
C. Hypoventilation
D. Disconjugation
95. The term MAC refers to :
A. The minimum
alveolar concentration
B. A measurement not
affected by age
C. The maximum
alveolar concentration
D. The maximum
alveolar tension
96. In (TURP) the irrigation fluid level above the patient must not exceed.
A. 0.5 meter
B. 1.5 meter
C. 1 meter only
D. Just above the
patient level